Bamidbar #2- Movable Mishkan?

In this weeks parsha, Bamidbar, it says is perek alef,  נאוּבִנְסֹ֣עַ הַמִּשְׁכָּ֗ן יוֹרִ֤ידוּ אֹתוֹ֙ הַֽלְוִיִּ֔ם וּבַֽחֲנֹת֙ הַמִּשְׁכָּ֔ן יָקִ֥ימוּ אֹת֖וֹ הַֽלְוִיִּ֑ם וְהַזָּ֥ר הַקָּרֵ֖ב יוּמָֽת. What does it mean יוֹרִ֤ידוּ אֹתוֹ֙? Rashi says it means to dismantle. This was for the purpose of transporting the mishkan when they needed to move across the dessert.

-What else could יוֹרִ֤ידוּ אֹתוֹ֙ mean?

- in the passuk it also talks about an outsider. Who could this outsider be?

- this "outsider" can also be put to death for interfearing with the packing of the mishkan. Why? Also who would be putting him to death?

Bamidbar #1 - Why wildernes?

In perek aleph pasuk aleph it says, "וידבר ה' אל משה במדבר סיני" – “and G-d spoke to moses in the wilderness of sinai” Why did Hashem give the torah to the jewish people in a wilderness? Chabad.org explains that since the wilderness has no owner, this symbolizes to Bnei yisroel that the torah does not belong to one person, but rather it belongs equally to everyone. Why do you think the torah was given in a wilderness, and why was the torah given in a dry land with no water?

Behar/Bechukotai #3- What's Wrong

In parshat Behar, perek chuf hey, passuk yud daled, it is stated to “not wrong one another”. What kind of “wronging” is this passuk referring to? Rashi suggests that it is refers to wronging in money matters. E.g: overpricing, theft etc. What other kind of wrong doing could this passuk suggest?

Behar/Bechukotai #2- Shemita & Har Sinai

This weeks Parsha is Behar-Bechokotai. In Leviticus 25:1, the question for when we talk about the shmita year, is that what does the shmita year even have to do with Har Sinai? Weren’t all the commandments given on Har Sinai? The Torat Kohanim writes about Rashi’s answer. He says that the pasuk tries to tell us that just as the shmita year both its general rule and the small details were commanded on Har Sinai, so too with all of the commandments the general rules and down to the details it was commanded/ decreed on Har Senai. 

What are other possible reasons that the shmita year has a connection with Har Senai?

Behar/Bechukotai #1- Shemita & Yovel

In this week's parsha it is written, "שֵׁ֤שׁ שָׁנִים֙ תִּזְרַ֣ע שָׂדֶ֔ךָ וְשֵׁ֥שׁ שָׁנִ֖ים תִּזְמֹ֣ר כַּרְמֶ֑ךָ וְאָסַפְתָּ֖ אֶת־תְּבוּאָתָֽהּ" and "וְסָפַרְתָּ֣ לְךָ֗ שֶׁ֚בַע שַׁבְּתֹ֣ת שָׁנִ֔ים שֶׁ֥בַע שָׁנִ֖ים שֶׁ֣בַע פְּעָמִ֑ים וְהָי֣וּ לְךָ֗ יְמֵי֙ שֶׁ֚בַע שַׁבְּתֹ֣ת הַשָּׁנִ֔ים תֵּ֥שַׁע וְאַרְבָּעִ֖ים שָׁנָֽה"  

(25:3,8) These pesukim discuss shemita and yovel.

There is much to discuss about shemita and yovel. For example, in 25:8 why does the pasuk say "שֶׁ֥בַע שָׁנִ֖ים שֶׁ֣בַע פְּעָמִ֑ים"? Isn't that repetitious? Rashi explains that one might think to keep seven successive years as shmita and keep the year immediately following it as the yovel year. The pasuk writes "שֶׁ֥בַע שָׁנִ֖ים שֶׁ֣בַע פְּעָמִ֑ים" to teach us that each seven-year cycle has to be done in its time. 

- What are some other examples of interesting wording that can be found in the discussion of yovel and shemita?

- Why 7 and 50? What is the significance?

- What connections (numbers, ideas) can be made to other places in the torah?

- How does shemita and yovel comment on the land of Israel?

- What can we learn from the laws of shemita and yovel?

Emor #4- Shulchan Aruch?

In this weeks parsha perek 21 pasuk 4, it says, "וְאֵ֙לֶּה֙ הַמִּשְׁפָּטִ֔ים אֲשֶׁ֥ר תָּשִׂ֖ים לִפְנֵיהֶֽם׃", "these are the rules you shall set before them:"

Why does the Torah take it's time to say "set before them"? Why doesn't it say "The rules to teach them"? What is the significance of this wording?

Rashi gives an explanation. He says that HaShem didn't want Moshe to simply have Bnei Yisrael memorize the Torah and Halacha verbatim and mindlessly, he wanted there to be a significance to what they were learning. Therefore, HaShem tells Moshe to have everything laid out before Bnei Yisrael like a table of food put out before someone ready to eat. This way Bnei Yisrael would learn more than just the word for word Torah and Halacha and be able to know the reason for it.

What are other possible reasons for why the pasuk says "set before them"?

Emor #3- tell them twice?

In this weeks Parsha, in chapter 21 pasuk 1 it says "וַיֹּ֤אמֶר יְהוָה֙ אֶל־מֹשֶׁ֔ה אֱמֹ֥ר אֶל־הַכֹּהֲנִ֖ים בְּנֵ֣י אַהֲרֹ֑ן וְאָמַרְתָּ֣ אֲלֵהֶ֔ם לְנֶ֥פֶשׁ לֹֽא־יִטַּמָּ֖א בְּעַמָּֽיו׃" "The LORD said to Moses: Speak to the priests, the sons of Aaron, and say to them: None shall defile himself for any [dead] person among his kin," Why does HaShem say to Moshe to "speak" to the priests and then again "say to them"? Why doesn't HaShem just say speak them once? Rashi answers this question and says the repetition is necessary to warn the adults about their child and hat they should be careful of defilement. Why else would HaShem use this repetition?